A) it is caused by filarial nematodes. B) larval infestation causes blockage of main lymphatic channels. C) the parasitic helminth is transmitted by black fly vectors. D) microfilariae are in the blood. E) severe edema occurs in the extremities and scrotum.
Cryptococcosis can include
B) pulmonary infection.
D) bone infection.
E) All of the choices are correct.D) All of the choices are correct.This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients.Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveciThis organism commonly contaminates grains, corn, and peanuts and produces a potent mycotoxin called aflatoxin:aspergillus flavusWhich of the following is a tick-borne viral disease that attacks the nervous system?
D) Leprosy.A) Dengue- transmitted through arthropods (mosquitos, ticks lice, flies, and fleas)The primary transmission route for acquiring agents of the common cold is by contact with hands and fomites contaminated with the nasal discharge of an infected person.
FalseTruePoliomyelitis (polio) is caused by the poliovirus and is primarily an intestinal disease.
FalseTrueWhich of the following defenses is the most important for the nervous system?
A) It's a closed system.
B) White blood cells.
C) Resident microbes.
D) The meninges.A) Its a closed systemWhen the nervous system becomes infected, what is the most common method of entry?Through the respiratory systemWhich of the following offers a second defense against microbial infections for the eye?
A) The choroid layer.
B) The sclera.
C) The conjunctiva.
D) The retinal layer.C) The conjunctivaInfections of the GI tract that enter through the mouth are most oftenBacterialAll of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except one.
A) It is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies.
B) It is a colitis that is a superinfection.
C) It often has an endogenous source.
D) It is associated with disruption of normal flora due to broad-spectrum antimicrobials.
E) It is the major cause of diarrhea in hospitals.A) It is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and graviesSalmonellosis is
A) not caused by Salmonella 'typhi.
B) associated with undercooked poultry and eggs, and reptile and rodent feces.
C) types of gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea.
D) treated with fluid and electrolyte replacement.
E) All of the choices are correct.E) All of the choices are correctCold viruses are transmitted by
A) droplet contact and indirect contact.
C) direct contact.
D) none of the choices is correct (Droplet and direct contact).
E) all of the choices are correct.E) All of the choices are correctWhich microbes given below are the most probable cause for infection in the lower respiratory system?
B) Herpes Zoster.
C) Influenza viruses.
D) Fungi.A) StaphylococcusWhich of the following is the most common form of microbe transmission in impetigo?
B) Direct contact.
C) Mechanical vectors.
E) Body fluids.B) Direct contactWhich digestive organ has the most infections:The large intestineWhat material in skin cells provides protection from abrasions, water damage, and microorganism entry?KeratinWhat group of microorganisms do not usually call the skin "home"?
E) All of the choices are correct.A) StreptococcusThe causative agent of acne isPropionibacterium acnes.Impetigo is caused byboth Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes.Which of the following is NOT true of measles?
A) it causes cell membranes to fuse to form syncytial.
B) its causative agent is a member of the Morbillivirus genus.
C) it is transmitted by respiratory droplets.
D) it is a single-stranded non enveloped RNA virus.
E) It is in the paramyxovirus family.D) It is a single stranded non-enveloped RNA virusWhich of the following statements is correct regarding fifth disease?
A) it is caused by Parvovirus B19.
B) it is a childhood febrile disease characterized by a red rash on the cheeks.
C) the causative agent is capable of crossing the placenta.
D) it is characterized by a maculopapular rash that lasts for days to weeks.
E) all of the choices are correct.E) all of the choices are correctWhich of the following statements is incorrect about the MMR vaccine
A) it is given in early childhood.
B) it contains toxoids.
C) it protects against three different viral diseases.
D) it contains attenuated viruses.B) it contains toxoidsWhich of the following statements is INCORRECT about warts?
A) topical salicylic acid.
B) they are frequently cancerous.
C) they are transmitted by direct contact or fomites.
D) they include deep plantar warts on the soles of the feet.
E) They are caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV).B) They are frequently cancerousCutaneous anthrax isA high mortality disease.Which of the following is mismatched?
A) human to human.
B) animal to human.
C) soil to human.
D) all of the choices are correct.D) all of the choices are correctYour sister cut herself with a knife and within a few days had a severe pus producing infection of the hand. A day later, her skin begins to come off, exposing muscle and other tissue below the skin. Predict what caused the severity of this infection.The infectious agent produces exotoxinsHuman herpesvirus 3 (HHV-3)
A) uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry.
B) becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes.
C) has humans as its reservoir.
D) causes chickenpox and shingles.
E) all of the choices are correct.E) All of the above are correctIn a recent surgery, when the cut area was sutured, bacteria entered the open tissue. As a result, you now have an infection of deep tissue exhibiting redness, swelling, pain fever and a rash. With your knowledge of microbiology, you predict that you have developed an infection caused byStaphlyococcusWhich of the following statements regarding viremia is INCORRECT?
A) HHV-3 is disseminated to the skin by viremia.
B) Droplet transmission of viruses like the measles virus results in viremia.
C) the variola multiplies in white blood cells, and cell lysis results in viremia.
D) shingles is a manifestation of persistent viremia after a course of chickenpox.D) Shingles is a manifestation of persistent viremia after a course of chickenpoxConsidering the diseases and conditions transmitted by respiratory droplets, they are caused by
D) all of these answers are correct.D) all of these answers are correctWhich of the following statements concerning rubella immunization is correct?
A) a child born with congenital rubella may be immunized to prevent recurrence of the disease.
B) a pregnant woman who contracts rubella should be immunized to protect her unborn child.
C) administration of the rubella vaccine at 12 to 15 months of age is good protection against congenital rubella.
D) the rubella vaccine given in childhood can protect both the child and any children that she may bear in the future.D) The rubella vaccine given in childhood can protect both the child and any children that she may bear in the future.Despite the fact that skin-to-skin contact is important in establishing bonding between babies and their caregivers, that same contact can also expose them to pathogens. You have been asked to teach a short class for child care workers to help them identify highly contagious diseases that can cause outbreaks in their environment. Which two of these conditions are most common and most infectious in babies?
A) Impetigo and ringworm.
B) Impetigo and cellulitis.
C) Impetigo and conjunctivitis.
D) Conjunctivitis and rubella.
E) Ringworm and hand, foot, and mouth disease.C) impetigo and conjunctivitisImpetigo can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Culture Based identification of the causative organism can be complicated byThe common surface antigens of these two organismsWhich of the following antibiotics specifically disrupt protein synthesis of streptococci?
E) Aminoglycosides.B) MacrolidesWhich of the following is incorrect about prophages?
A) present when virus is lysogeny.
B) formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome.
C) replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny.
D) cause of lysis of host cells.
E) occur when temperate phages enter host cells.D) cause of lysis of the host cellsViral spikesare always present on enveloped virusesViruses have all the following except
A) definite shape.
D) the ability to infect host cells.
E) ultramicroscopic size.B) metabolismProphages can be activated into viral replication and enter the lytic cycle.
FalseTrueViruses that specifically infect bacteria are calledBacteriophagesAll of the following are found in some or all protozoa except
B) ectoplasm and endoplasm.
C) heterotrophic nutrition.
D) formation of a cyst stage.
E) cell wall.E) cell wallThe cell's series of tunnel-like membranes functioning in transport and storage are theendoplasmic reticulumFilamentous fungi are calledMoldsWhich of the following is not a universal precaution for handling patients and body substances?
A) Mask and gloves.
B) Proper disposal of needles.
C) Health care worker with active lesions handling patients.
D) Hand washing.
E) Sterilizing or disinfecting dental hand pieces.C) Health care worker with active lesions handling patients.Which is not a characteristic of fungi?
A) Have cell walls.
C) Include single-celled and filamentous forms.
D) Heterotrophic nutrition.
E) Can use a wide variety of nutrients.B) PhotosyntheticIn humans, helminths generally infect theDigestive tractAll of the following are helminths except
E) Tapeworms.C) TrypanosomesViral nucleic acids include which of the following?
A) double-stranded DNA.
B) single-stranded DNA.
C) double-stranded RNA.
D) single-stranded RNA.
E) All of the choices are correct.E) All of the choices are correctThe primary purpose of viral cultivation is
A) to isolate and identify viruses in clinical specimens.
B) to prepare viruses for vaccines.
C) to do detailed research on viral structure, lifestyle, genetics, and effects on host cells.
D) All of the choices are correct.D) All of the above are correctIt is necessary to culture viruses both in vivo and in vitro so that vaccines can be developed, analysis of viral genomes can be made, and viruses in clinical specimens can be identified.
FalseTrueAll bacterial cells haveone or more chromosomesWhich of the following is not classified as a helminth?
E) All of the choices are helminths.E) All of the choices are helminthsThe virulence of a pathogen is established by how strong or weak a patient's body defenses are at the time of infection.
FalseFalseWhich of the following are typically irradiated in order to kill microbes?
A) Meats like ground beef and pork.
B) Human tissues such as heart valves and skin.
C) Operating room air.
D) Surgical gloves.
E) All of the choices are correct.E) All of the choices are correctInfectious protein particles are calledprionsThe greatest number of pathogens enter the body through the
A) respiratory system.
B) gastrointestinal system.
C) urinary system.
D) genital system.
E) skin.A) respiratory systemThe most immediate result of destruction of a cell's ribosomes would beprotein synthesis would stopThe bacterial chromosome
A) is located in the cell membrane.
B) contains all the cell's plasmids.
C) is part of the nucleoid.
D) forms a single linear strand of DNA.
E) All of the choices are correct.C) Is part of the nucleoidThe site for ribosomal RNA synthesis is thenucleolusThe subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed aSymptomViruses are not filterable.
FalseFalseWhich of the following is found in eukaryotic cells but not in the cells of bacteria?
C) Endoplasmic reticulum.
E) All of the choices are correct.E) All of the choices are correct.Lysogeny refers toViral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosomesHost cells of viruses include
A) Humans and other animals.
B) Plants and fungi.
D) Protozoa and algae.
E) All of the choices are correct.E) All of the choices are correctChitin is a chemical component of the cell walls ofFungiAn infectious agent already existing on or in the body is calledEndogenousInfections occur whenPathogens enter and multiply in body tissuesWhich of the following microbial forms have the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls?
A) Naked viruses.
B) Protozoan cysts.
C) Fungal spores.
D) Bacterial endospores.
E) Yeast.D) Bacterial endosporesFomites, food, and air serve as indirect transmission routes of pathogens.
FalseTrueWhich organelle contains cristae where enzymes and electron carriers for aerobic respiration are found?MitochondriaWhich of the following is not a normal portal of exit for an infectious disease?
B) urogenital tract and feces.
C) coughing and sneezing.
E) All of these are normal exit portals.A) FlatulencePhysical agents for controlling microbial growth include all the following except:
A) Ultraviolet radiation.
B) Boiling water.
C) HEPA filters.
E) Hydrogen peroxide.E) Hydrogen peroxideSue brought her daughter Amy to the pediatrician complaining of a sore throat. The physician examines Amy and observes that her throat is bright red and there are white pus-filled nodules on her tonsils. Which of the following conclusions should be made?
A) She has a strep throat and should begin antibiotics.
B) She should have a rapid strep test performed before a diagnosis is made.
C) She should go home and rest because most sore throats are viral in origin.
D) She should go home and come back in two days for a strep test since it may take that long to show up.
E) She has a staphylococcal sore throat and should begin antibiotics immediately.B) She should have a rapid strep test performed before a diagnosis is made.If left untreated, an infection with ___ can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease and infertility.N. gonorrhoeaeAll of the following are correct about Streptococcus pyogenes, except:
A) Humans are the only significant reservoir.
B) Some of the streptococcal toxins act as superantigens.
C) Most strains do not have a capsule.
D) It can cause impetigo and erysipelas.
E) Infection is generally through direct contact.C) Most strains do not have a capsuleAll of the following are correct about Staphylococcus aureus, except:
A) it is the coagulase-positive species.
B) the body's most powerful defense against it lies in the T-cell response.
C) carriers may be treated with antibiotics to clear them of the bacteria.
D) most strains are resistant to penicillin and ampicillin.
E) it causes furuncles, carbuncles, and abscesses.B) the body's most powerful defenses against it lies in the t-cell responseA patient has a suspicious skin infection and a culture is taken. Which media would be appropriate to select for staphylococci?Mannitol salt agarA pregnant woman is told she has a positive CAMP test and should be treated with a course of antibiotics and globulin. This test is indicative ofGroup B streptococciWhich chemical produced by S. aureus is also known as "spreading factor"?HyaluronidaseWhich chemical, produced by S. aureus, digests blood clots?StaphlokinaseA positive Quellung reaction, or capsular swelling, is confirmatory forStreptococcus pneumoniaeThe majority of otitis media in children is mainly due to infection withStreptococcus pneumoniaeAll of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis, except:
A) virulent factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease.
B) it causes serious meningitis.
C) the reservoir is the nasopharynx of human carriers.
D) it is more easily transmitted in day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks.
E) it is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia.E) It is a common cause of bacterial pneumoniaThe installation of antibiotics in newborn's eyes will prevent ophthalmia neonatorum in newborns. This disease is caused byNeisseria gonorrhoeaeNeisseria gonorrhoeae is:
A) the cause of ophthalmia neonatorum.
B) the cause of gonorrhea.
C) called the gonococcus.
D) virulent due to fimbriae and a protease that inactivates IgA.
E) All of the choices are correct.E) All of the choices are correctAll of the following pertain to gonorrhea, except:
A) a chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry.
B) it is a reportable infectious disease.
C) pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and infertility are complications.
D) females can have asymptomatic infection.
E) symptoms include painful urination and discharge.A) a chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entryPeople at greatest risk for pneumococcal infections include all the following, except:
B) those with underlying lung disease and viral infections.
C) patients without a spleen.
D) adolescents and young adults.
E) young infants.D) adolescents and young adultsMeningococcemia isAssociated with vascular hemorrhage and petechiaeStreptococcus pneumoniae isa gram positive diplococcus with a capsuleDiseases caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae include:
A) otitis media.
C) lobar pneumonia.
D) bronchial pneumonia.
E) All of the choices are correct.E) All of the choices are correctAll of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis, except:
A) It occurs in patients that have prior heart damage.
B) it is caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue.
C) oral bacteria get introduced by dental procedures to the blood.
D) bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in vegetation.
E) signs and symptoms include fever, heart murmur, and possible emboli.B) It is caused by immune system auto-antibodies that attack heart and valve tissueNecrotizing fasciitis is associated with strains ofstreptococcus pyogenes producing destructive enzymes and toxinsThe Group A streptococcal infection that has symptoms of fever, edema of skin near portal of entry, and an elevated red, hot vesicular lesion iserysipelasScarlet fever involves:
A) high fever.
B) bright red rash on face, trunk, inner arms and legs, and tongue.
C) eventual desquamation of epidermis.
D) septicemia as a complication.
E) All of the choices are correct.E) All of the choices are correctLong-term sequelae of Group A streptococcal infections include all the following, except:
A) risk decreased with prompt treatment of skin infections and pharyngitis.
B) development of rheumatic fever.
C) appearance of sequelae within a few weeks after an initial infection.
D) transmission of sequelae via respiratory secretions from a patient with streptococcal sore throat.
E) development of acute glomerulonephritis.D) Transmission of sequelae via respiratory secretions from a patient with streptococcal sore throat.All of the following pertain to Enterococcus faecalis, except:
A) normal flora of the human large intestine.
B) increasingly resistant to many antimicrobics.
C) cause nosocomial wound infections, urinary tract infections, and septicemias.
D) can cause endocarditis.
E) belong to Lancefield Group B streptococci.E) belong to Lancefield Group B streptococciStaphylococci can be differentiated from streptococci by thecatalase testStreptococcus pyogenes causes all the following, except:
A) necrotizing fasciitis.
D) scarlet fever.
E) scalded skin syndrome.Scalded skin syndromeAll the following pertain to Staphylococcus epidermidis infections, except:
A) they often come from an endogenous source.
B) They typically occur after insertion of shunts and prosthetic devices.
C) Catheterization can introduce the organism and lead to urinary tract infection.
D) the organism is coagulase negative.
E) the organism produces a large number of tissue damaging enzymes and toxins.E) The organism produces a large number of tissue damaging enzymes and toxinsSymptoms of Toxic Shock Syndrome include all the following, except:
A) fever and muscle pain.
B) appearance of flesh being "eaten" down to the muscle.
C) nausea, vomiting, diarrhea.
D) sunburn-like rash.
E) kidney and liver failure.B) Appearance of flesh being "eaten" down to the muscleInfections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following, except:
B) furuncles and carbuncles.
C) sore throat.
E) pneumonia.sore throatWhich is incorrect about Staphylococcus aureus food intoxication?
A) Food becomes contaminated by a human carrier.
B) Common associated foods include custards, ham, cream pastries, processed meats.
C) After contamination, food must be left unrefrigerated for a few hours.
D) Ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GI tract lining.
E) Symptoms come on quickly, and include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea.C) After contamination, food must be left unrefrigerated for a few hours.Which pathogen has drug resistant strains called MRSA?
A) Staphylococcus aureus.
B) Staphylococcus epidermidis.
C) Staphylococcus saprophytic-us.
D) Streptococcus pyogenes.
E) Streptococcus agalactiae.A) Staphylococcus aureusThe most common site where carriers of Staphylococcus aureus carry this pathogen isanterior nares (nostrils)Which pathogen is the most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis in the United States?Streptococcus agalactiaeWhich organism is associated with commonly causing urinary tract infections in sexually active young adult and adolescent females?Staphylococcus saprophyticusScarlet fever is caused by strains of:Streptococcus pyogenesA common food intoxication is caused by enterotoxin-producing strains ofStaphylococcus aureusThe toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is:exfoliative toxinThe bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever is due to:Erythrogenic toxinAll species of Staphylococcuslack sporesThe enzyme that coagulates plasma iscoagulaseWhich microbes given below are the most probable cause for infection in the upper respiratory system?
B) Herpes Zoster.
D) Fungi.A) StreptococcusWhich of the following is a zoonotic viral disease that attacks the nervous system?
D) Botulism.B) RabiesTetanus can be prevented with the DTaP childhood immunization boosters of the tetanus toxoid.
FalseTrueIn both botulism and tetanus, respiratory muscles cannot facilitate breathing and, if untreated, respiratory collapse leads to death.
FalseTrueImpetigo involves itching papules that break and form a very contagious yellow crust.
FalseTrueThere are no infectious agents that can invade intact skin.
FalseFalseAll of the following pertain to genital warts except
A) are not common in North America.
B) are sexually transmitted.
C) often occur on the penis, vagina, and cervix.
D) includes large cauliflower-like masses called condylomata acuminate.
E) certain strains strongly predispose a person to cancer of the cervix or penis.A) Are not common in north AmericaOf the following items, which one provides the most defense for the urinary & reproductive system?
A) Closed system.
B) White blood cells.
C) Mucous membrane.
D) Blood barrier.C) mucous membraneStreptococcus pneumoniae is
A) Alpha-hemolytic on blood agar.
B) often referred to as pneumococcus.
C) commonly found as part of the normal microbiota of the human respiratory tract.
D) most likely to be treated with antibiotics.
E) all of the choices are correct.E) All the choices are correctBladder infections are more common in women because fecal bacteria can infect the urinary tract more easily.
FalseTrueMalaria may be prevented by
A) using bed nets sprayed with insecticide.
B) eliminating standing water.
C) taking prophylactic drugs.
D) decreasing the mosquito population.
E) all of the choices are correct.E) All the choices are correctNormal biota of the urethra include all of the following except
A) nonhemolytic Streptococcus.
D) Escherichia coli.
E) Lactobacillus.D) Escherichia coliWhich of the following is not a defense of the genitourinary tract?
A) flushing action of urine.
E) mucus secretions.IgGThe predominant microorganism in the female reproductive tract during childbearing years isLactobacillusWhich of the following diseases involve bacteria that moves from the digestive tract to the nervous system?
D) Botulism.D) BotulismAll of the following are signs and symptoms of urinary tract infections except
A) red blood cells in urine.
B) painful urination.
C) white blood cells in urine.
E) diarrhea.E) DiarrheaProtective features of the skin include all but
A) Keratinized surface.
B) Resident biota.
C) Antimicrobial peptides.
D) High pH.
E) Lysozyme.D) High pHThe reproductive tract of females is further protected against infections due totheir acidic environmentWhich of the following is not a characteristic of the normal biota of the female reproductive tract during childbearing years?
A) Vaginal pH is neutral.
B) Estrogen causes glycogen release.
C) Lactobacilli convert sugars to acid.
D) Candida albicans is present in small amounts.
E) Secretory IgA provides protection.A) vaginal pH is neutralWhich of the body's systems offers the most protection against microbe infection?Integumentary system (skin)All are true of influenza viruses except
A) Influenza viruses A, B, and C make up three of the five major groups of orthomyxoviruses.
B) The most virulent group is the Influenza A viruses.
C) every year a new influenza vaccine is developed.
D) the ability to provide lifelong immunity.D) the ability to provide lifelong immunityLactobacillis in the female reproductive tractis protectiveThe expected outcome of an oxidase test performed to identify Neisseria meningitidis is
A) the amplification of the oxi gene as detected on an agarose gel.
B) cells colored black when stained and viewed under the microscope.
C) the appearance of bubbles when cells are mixed with hydrogen peroxide.
D) a zone of clearing surrounding colonies on chocolate agar.
E) a color change of a colony from tan to black when oxidase reagent is added.E) a color change of a colony from tan to black when oxidase reagent is addedMeningitis can be caused by a number of microbes, and the causative organism is often identified by microscopic observation of the cerebrospinal fluid. Identify the mismatch in the following list of organisms and the description of the microscopic observation.
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae; gram-positive flattened coccus.
B) Cryptococcus neoformans; fungal cells with a thick capsule.
C) Listeria monocytogenes; gram-negative coccobacillus with flagella.
D) Enterovirus; no bacteria appear to be present in CSF.
E) Neisseria meningitidis; gram-negative diplococcus.C) Listeria monocytogenes; gram-negative coccobacillus with flagellaAs a child, you received the OPV vaccine and its boosters. Now you are going on a mission trip to Pakistan, and the vaccine is recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. When you go to the health office for the vaccine, they give you the IPV vaccine. When you ask why you are receiving the IPV rather than the OPV, the personnel explain that
A) there is no possibility of actually developing polio from this vaccine.
B) IPV is used as a booster only, and OPV is used exclusively for children's first immunization.
C) the IPV has fewer active viruses in it than the OPV, so it is safer.
D) the IPV is preferred by patients because it can be taken orally.A) There is no possibility of actually developing polio from this vaccineToxoplasma gondii infects the brain, as do many other pathogens. However, Toxoplasma differs from other pathogens in that itmanifests in behavioral changes in the hostTreatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includespost exposure vaccinationYour friend was bitten by an aggressive dog with a history of biting without cause, and it is suspected to have rabies. The city health department recommends the rabies vaccination, even though she has already been exposed to the infectious agent. Which statement best describes why the vaccine can be given post-exposure?
A) There were few virus particles in the bite, so her immune system has enough time to respond.
B) Since there is no treatment available, they suggest the vaccine as a last resort.
C) The virus exhibits a long incubation period, and therefore, in many cases, this provides the vaccine adequate time to have a protective effect in the patient.
D) This particular strain of the rabies virus is probably nonpathogenic, so the vaccine is given to boost the immune system's protective functions.C) The virus exhibits a long incubation period, and therefore, in many cases, this provides the vaccine adequate time to have a protective effect in the patient.The vector involved in African sleeping sickness is theTsetse flyWhat do amoebic encephalitis, rabies, and Creutzfeld-Jacob disease have in common?Mortality rates are all extremely highWhat is the exotoxin of botulism?BotulinumAfrican sleeping sickness is caused byTrypanosoma bruceiProduction of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic ofClostridium botulinumWhich of the following pertains to both tetanus and foodborne botulism?
A) Treatment involves antitoxin therapy.
B) An exotoxin blocks acetylcholine release.
C) Nausea and diarrhea are symptoms.
D) They occur when endospore-contaminated soil enters deep wounds.
E) They are caused by enterotoxins of the pathogen.A) Treatment involves antitoxin therapyProduction of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic ofClostridium tetaniThe food-borne disease that involves neurotoxin isBotulismPoliovirus initially multiplies in theintestineIn paralytic polio, which structures are damaged?brain stemWhich of the following statements about rabies is incorrect?
A) Transmission can involve bites, scratches, and inhalation.
B) Rabies is a zoonotic disease.
C) Symptoms include anxiety, agitation, muscle spasms, convulsions, and paralysis.
D) The average incubation period in human is 1 week.
E) Wild populations of bats, skunks, raccoons, cats, and canines are primary reservoirs.D) The average incubation period in humans is 1 weekWhich of the following statements regarding poliomyelitis is incorrect?
A) The virus is transmitted by contaminated water.
B) Summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been increasing in frequency.
C) It is caused by poliovirus (genus Enterovirus).
D) If the virus enters the central nervous system, motor neurons can be infected and destroyed.
E) It can be asymptomatic or mild with headache, sore throat, fever, and nausea.B) Summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been increasing in frequencyOf the following listed below, which one is most likely to be caught in a "third world" country via infection through an arthropod?
D) Chagas disease.A) MalariaNormal biota of the ureters and bladder includenonhemolytic streptococcusAlthough prion infectious agents are more closely related to viruses than any other kind of infectious agents, there are still some major differences between the two. Which statement describes a major difference?
A) Viruses can be transmitted by animal to human or human to human, but prions are always human to human transmission.
B) Prions are not destroyed by heat, but viruses can be inactivated by heat.
C) Viruses do not contain protein, whereas prions do.
D) Viral infections can always be treated and cured, whereas prion diseases cannot.B) Prions are not destroyed by heat, but viruses can be inactivated by heat.Tetanus differs from botulism in thatmuscles cannot relax in tetanus, while muscles cannot contract in botulismPrions can be transmitted by all of the following except
A) ingesting brain material.
B) ingesting meat from infected animals.
C) surgical instruments.
D) cornea transplants.
E) All of the choices have been documented as methods of prion transmission.E) All of the choices have been documented as methods of prion transmissionSubacute encephalitis may be caused by
A) Toxoplasma gondii.
C) herpes simplex virus.
D) persistent measles virus.
E) All of the choices are correct.E) All of the choices are correct.Patients with Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease live ______ post diagnosis.less than a yearWhat organism is the main reservoir and host for Toxoplasma gondii?CatSpongiform encephalopathies are
A) associated with abnormal, transmissible, protein in the brain.
B) chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system.
C) caused by prions.
D) Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease, kuru, and Gertsmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome.
E) All of the choices are correct.E) All of the choices are correct.Encephalitis caused by arboviruses involves the development ofcoma, convulsions, and paralysis in severe cases.Each of the following statements is true for Toxoplasma gondii except that
A) infection is often fatal for AIDS patients.
B) It has a narrow host range.
C) it can cause stillbirth.
D) it is a flagellated parasite.B) It has a narrow host rangeToxoplasmosis prevention includeshygienic precautionsEncephalitis is most commonly caused by avirusWhat is the likelihood that a patient infected by West Nile virus will develop West Nile encephalitis?Less than 1%The best defense against arboviruses isVector controlAs a nurse, you have to teach your patients about control and management of their diseases as well as the facts of the disease--risk, treatment, symptoms, etc. How might you instruct a patient who has West Nile virus to avoid the infectious agent in the future?Do not go outside at dusk or dawn and cover the skin if this is unavoidable.Which of the following is caused by Haemophilus influenzae?
D) Influenza (flu).
E) Bacterial meningitis.E) Bacterial meningitisWhich of the following diseases exhibits the highest mortality rate?
A) La Crosse encephalitis.
B) Jamestown Canyon encephalitis.
C) Eastern equine encephalitis.
D) West Nile encephalitis.C) Eastern equine encephalitisThe organism found in contaminated powdered infant formula that can cause meningitis isCronobacter sakazakiiWhich of the following is not true of meningoencephalitis?
A) The condition involves infection of both the brain and meninges.
B) The mode of transmission is via respiratory droplets.
C) The treatment for primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) is mostly ineffective.
D) The causative organisms are Naegleria fowleri and Acanthamoeba.B) The mode of transmission is via respiratory dropletsNeonatal meningitis is most commonly transmitted byexposure in the birth canalCryptococcus neoformans is afungusAgricultural workers and field archaeologists are exposed to this organism which, despite entering via the respiratory tract, can cause meningitis.Coccidioides immitisWhich of the following statements is incorrect regarding Listeria monocytogenes?
A) It is fastidious.
B) It does not produce a capsule.
C) It is resistant to salt
D) It is resistant to cold.
E) It is resistant to heat.A) it is fastidiousWhich organism is a common cause of meningitis in AIDS patients and can be found in bird droppings?Cryptococcus neoformansTreatment for Neisseria meningitidis consists ofintravenous penicillin GWhich of the following is not true of Streptococcus pneumoniae?
A) It is a small, gram-negative coccus.
B) It is the most frequent cause of community-acquired meningitis.
C) It has a polysaccharide capsule that resists phagocytosis.
D) It produces an alpha-hemolysin and hydrogen peroxide.A) It is a small, gram-negative coccus.Oral flora bacteria on the tooth surface
A) develop a biofilm.
B) use fimbriae and slime layers to adhere.
C) include Streptococci that metabolize sucrose, produce sticky glucans, and form plaque.
D) include Ladobacilli and Streptococci, which ferment carbohydrates and produce acids that cause caries.
E) All of the choices are correct.E) All of the choices are correctFor the Cardiovascular and lymphatic systems, what is the major defense for blood and lymphatic vessels being infected with microbes?T cellsThe epidermal cells contain the protein _________ which "waterproofs" the skin and protects it from microbial invasionKeratinWhat is the name of the condition where the large intestine becomes inflamed?ColitisThe most common causative agent of urinary tract infections is:Escherichia coli.Herpes simplex 2 (HSV-2) causes
A) genital lesions.
B) intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals.
C) symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis, and itching.
D) infection in neonates that have contact with lesions in the birth canal.
E) All of the choices are correct.E) All of the choices are correctDocumented transmission of HIV involvesUnprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood productsWhat is the major line of defense to protect blood from microbes?White blood cellsOf the following microbes listed below, which ones are the ones most likely to damage your immune system?
A) Herpes virus.
C) Human Immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
D) Epstein-Barr virus.C) Human Immunodeficiency virus (HIV)Which one of the following is the chief defense for the respiratory system?
A) It's a closed system.
B) It's mucous membrane.
C) It's respiratory membrane.
D) The white blood cells.B) The mucous membraneAscaris lumbricoides
A) is an intestinal roundworm.
B) spreads to humans by ingestion of Ascaris eggs in food.
C) larvae penetrate into the capillaries around intestines and migrate to the lungs.
D) larvae migrate to the pharynx, get swallowed, and return to intestines to mature.
E) All of the choices are correct.E) All of the choices are correctMeningococci initially colonize thenasopharynxNeisseria meningitidis is transmitted byClose contactWhich of the following is a sign or symptom of meningitis?
B) Stiff neck.
C) White blood cells in cerebrospinal fluid.
E) All of the choices are correct.E) All of the choices are correctThe organism responsible for the majority of neonatal meningitis isStreptococcus agalactiaeMeningococcemia is
A) best treated with penicillin G.
B) associated with vascular collapse, hemorrhage, and petechiae.
C) started from a nasopharyngeal infection.
D) caused by a gram-negative diplococcus.
E) All of the choices are correct.E) All of the choices are correct.The normal biota of the central nervous system includesThe CNS has no normal biotaAlthough many viruses can cause meningitis, the most common viral cause isenterovirusWhich type of cell has phagocytic capabilities in the central nervous system?microglial cellsThe gut-brain axis refers tochanges in brain chemistry and behavior caused by the gut microbiotaThe presence of Neisseria in a sample of cerebrospinal fluid indicates thatThe patient has an infection with NeisseriaThe concept of "immune privilege" explains why the central nervous system hasA reduced immune response compared to the rest of the bodyCerebrospinal fluid is found in thesubarachnoid spaceWhich brain defense restricts substances from entering the brain via the vascular system?Blood-brain barrierNeonatal conjunctivitis differs from non-neonatal conjunctivitis in thatIt is transmitted during birth and occurs only in neonates less than 4 weeks oldMany gyms are abundantly supplied with towels and antimicrobial sprays for wiping down equipment after each user. The reason for this is to cut down on the transmission ofskin microbes like MRSAWhat is the only way to prevent non-neonatal conjunctivitis?Good hygieneYour child has developed an eye infection with a yellowish discharge. You predict that this is a case ofBacterial conjunctivitisThe causative agent of trachoma isC. trachomatisKeratitis is usually caused byherpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1)Which eye disease is characterized by a pannus forming over the cornea?TrachomaWhich of the following statements regarding eye infections is correct?
A) Immune privilege restricts virtually all microbes from the tissues of the eye.
B) Inflammation occurs in most eye infections and serves to initiate repair of the damaged tissue.
C) Lysozyme in tears targets the gram-negative microbes that contact the eye.
D) Eye infections may be opportunistic infections by the normal microbiota of the eye.D) Eye infections may be opportunistic infections by the normal microbiota of the eye.A higher rate of eye infections can be expected from a person who _____.Cannot produce tearsThe two tissues of the eye with exposed surfaces susceptible to contamination are the ______ and the _____.Conjunctiva; corneaAmong the natural defenses present in tears is the protein lactoferrin. As you can infer from its name, it is also present in milk and other body secretions, and its function involves binding iron ions. The presence of lactoferrin in tears is protective against bacterial infection becauseAll pathogens must acquire iron from their environment and latoferrin ensures that the iron concentration is lowWhich of the following ocular tissues and infections is mismatched?
A) Conjunctivitis; milky discharge and infection of eyelid lining.
B) River blindness; microfilariae visible in the vitreous chamber.
C) Keratitis; infection of deep eye tissue.
D) Trachoma; infection of epithelial cells.B) River blindness; microfilariae visible in the vitreous chamberEyes are relatively vulnerable to infection because
A) they are not covered by keratinized epithelium.
B) immune privilege restricts access to the cells conferring innate immunity.
C) there is scant normal microbiota to serve a protective role.
D) All of the answers are correct.D) All of the answers are correctTo perform the coagulase test on a strain of bacteria that is believed to be S. aureus, the first step is to inoculate a tube of ______ with the strain of interest.blood plasmaThe main causative agent of gas gangrene isClostridium perfringensWhich of the following is not true of cellulitis?
A) surgery may be required for treatment.
B) lymphangitis may occur with this infection.
C) it is caused by S. aureus or S. progenies.
D) it affects the epidermis layer of the skin.
E) it causes pain, tenderness, swelling, and warmth.D) It affects the epidermis layer of the skinWhich of the following is not true of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?
A) it predominantly affects newborns and babies.
B) it is an exotoxin-mediated disease.
C) the toxins cause bullous lesions.
D) the skin splits between the dermis and epidermis.
E) the skin splits within the epidermis.D) the skin splits between the dermis and epidermisInfections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following except
B) scalded skin syndrome.
E) impetigo.C) chickenpoxWhich of the following statements does not pertain to Streptococcus pyogenes?
A) it causes gas gangrene.
B) it secretes streptokinase.
C) it is often spread from an endogenous source.
D) it coats itself with host proteins.
E) it causes impetigo.A) it causes gas gangreneThe organisms that cause ringworm, or tinea, use keratin protein as their growth substrate. This is why these infectionsare restricted to superficial skin layersnecrotizing fasciitisassociated with strains of Streptococcus pyogenes producing destructive enzymes and toxinsWhich of the following statements is correct regarding rubella?
A) it manifests as high fever, severe sore throat, severe cough, and myalgia.
B) it is not preventable by a vaccine.
C) it is associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects in the infant.
D) it is caused by the measles virus.C) it is associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects in the infantMeasles is described as a ______ skin lesion.maculopapularWhich microorganism species is most well-adapted to life on the skin?staphylococcus epidermidisThe smallpox vaccine uses the _____ virus.vaccinaWhich material in skin provides protection from abrasions, water damage, and microorganism entry?keratinThe environment of human skin requires an adaptation for microbes that can tolerate moderatelyhalophiliacWhich of the following skin defenses and its mechanism is mismatched?
A) antimicrobial peptides; disrupt positively charged bacterial membranes.
B) sebum; lipid hydrolysis leads to toxic by-products that inhibit microbial growth.
C) lysozyme; hydrolyzes peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls.
D) keratinized surface; protein that provides waterproofing.A) antimicrobial peptides; disrupt positively charged bacterial membranesIn the skin, blood vessels are found in thedermis and subcutaneous layersWhich of the following statements about blisters is correct?
A) blisters result from a separation of epidermis from dermis.
B) blisters originate in the subcutaneous layer.
C) blisters are confined to the epidermis.
D) blisters originate in the dermis.A) blisters result from a separation of epidermis from dermisMicrobes are not likely to be found in which of the following locations on human skin?
A) hair follicle.
B) sebaceous gland.
C) sensory nerve fiber in the dermis.
D) the stratum corneum.C) sensory nerve fiber in the dermisThe integument includes all of the following except
C) sweat glands.
D) surface capillaries.
E) nails.D) surface capillariesAll of the following can be transmitted by drinking contaminated water except
E) giardiasis.C) malariaViral meningitis always requires aggressive antiviral treatment.
Falsefalsethe best prevention for UTIs ishygieneWhich of the following structures of the skin assists in keeping the skin the most inhospitable?
A) Eccrine glands.
B) Oil glands.
C) Erector pili.
D) Apocrine glands.A) Eccrine glandsA mother brings in her unimmunized, otherwise healthy, 7-year-old daughter to the pediatric office where you are the charge nurse. The child has nearly 100 lesions all over her body, mainly localized to her trunk. Most of the lesions are vesicular, but a few have scabbed over. According to the mother, her daughter broke out in this rash about 5 days ago. She never experienced a fever, but the rash seems to be incurably itchy. As the mother is telling you this, you see her daughter itch open one of the vesicles, revealing a clear fluid.
Based on the patient's symptoms, you suspect that she will be diagnosed withchickenpoxWhat is the only way to prevent conjunctivitis?good hygieneThe eye's best defense is thetear filmWhich is true of viral conjunctivitis?
A) caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B) has a mucopurulent discharge.
C) caused by adenoviruses.
D) must be treated with topical and oral antibiotics.
E) caused by Moraxella.C) caused by adenovirusesWhich of the following is not true of bacterial conjunctivitis?
A) transmitted through both direct and indirect contact.
B) can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C)treatment is with a broad-spectrum topical antibiotic.
D) has a clear discharge.
E) can be caused by Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, or Neisseria gonorrhoeae.D) has a clear dischargeWhich of the following provides the eye with its best defense against microorganisms?
E) eyelashes.D) tearsWhich of the following is the causative agent of tinea versicolor?
E) None of the choices is correct.A) malasseziaWhich of the following is not a causative agent of cutaneous mycoses?
E) All of the choices are correct.A) malasseziaTransmission of tineas include
A) human to human.
B) animal to human.
C) soil to humans.
D) fomites to humans.
E) All of the choices are correct.E) all of the choices are correctWhich of the following is mismatched?
A) tinea capitis - ringworm of the beard.
B) tinea pedis - ringworm of the foot.
C) tinea cruis - ringworm of the groin.
D) tinea corporis - ringworm of the body.
E) tinea unguium - ringworm of the nails.A) tinea capitis - ringworm of the beardTransmission of the pathogen of Leishmaniasis is by thesand flyWhich form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin?cutaneousRubella isassociated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac mental defects.This febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damagerubellaWhich of the following is not true of rubeola?
A) causative agent is a member of the Morbillivirus genus.
B) it is a single-stranded, nonenveloped RNA virus.
C) it is in the Paramyxovirus family.
D) causes cell membranes to fuse to form syncytia.
E) transmitted by respiratory droplet.B) it is a single-stranded, nonenveloped RNA virusMeasles is also known asRubeolaAll of the following pertain to measles (rubeola) except
A) transmitted by direct contact with the rash.
B) Humans are the only reservoir for the pathogen.
C) secondary bacterial otitis media and sinusitis can occur.
D) involves a fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE).
E) dry cough, sore throat, fever, and conjunctivitis are symptoms.A) transmitted by direct contact with the rashOral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients withmeasles (rubeola)Varicella-zoster virus (human herpesvirus-3)
A) uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry.
B) becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes.
C) has humans as its reservoir.
D) causes chickenpox and shingles.
E) All of the choices are correct.E) All of the choices are correctIf a person who has never been infected with the varicella-zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, they will come down withchicken poxSmallpox is a disease in whichfever, prostration, rash, possible toxemia and shock occurChickenpox
A) is transmitted by droplet contact.
B) Lesion distribution is centripetal.
C) has an incubation of 10 to 20 days.
D) has fever and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops.
E) All of the choices are correct.Streptococcus pyogenes causes all of the following except
A) necrotizing fasciitis.
E) scarlet fever.
F) scalded skin syndrome.F) scalded skin syndromeWhich of the following is not true of cellulitis?
A) caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) occurs in the epidermis.
C) causes pain, tenderness, swelling, and warmth.
D) lymphangitis may occur.
E) treated with cephalexin.B) occurs in the epidermisToxic Shock Syndrome (TSS) is a result of S. aureus producing a superantigen and may occur as a complication of other localized or systemic infections.
FalseTrueWhich of the skin's layers offers the most protection from microbes?epidermal layerMRSAs are Staphylococcus aureus strains that areresistant to penicillin derivativesGiardiasis involvessymptoms of abdominal pain, flatulence, and diarrheaYellow fever and dengue fever aretransmitted by a mosquito vectorWhich is incorrect about Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
A) has birds as a reservoir.
B) common cause of primary atypical pneumonia.
C) initially causes fever, malaise, sore throat, and headache.
D) after 2 to 3 weeks, develops into an unproductive cough and earache.
E) is a bacterial cell without a cell wall.A) has birds as reservoirsWhat features of the respiratory system protect it from infection?
A) nasal hairs.
E) All of the choices are correct.E) All of the choices are correct.The causative organism of whooping cough isBordetella pertussisFormation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in cases ofdiphtheriaWhich of the following pertains to diphtheria?
A) results in meningitis.
B) symptoms include vomiting and diarrhea.
C) can be transmitted from mother's birth canal to neonate.
D) prevented by the DTaP immunization.D) prevented by the DTaP immunizationThe enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract isneuraminidaseThe highest incidence of histoplasmosis in the United States occurs in theeast and Midwest.The most common causative agent of otitis media isStreptococcus pneumoniaeCharacteristics of Histoplasma capsulatum includeit grows in moist soil; rich in nitrogen from bird and bat droppings.