## Related questions with answers

In an article in the Journal of Advertising, Weinberger and Spotts compare the use of humor in television ads in the United States and the United Kingdom. They found that a substantially greater percentage of U.K. ads use humor.

Do the confidence intervals you computed in parts $a$ and $b$ suggest that a greater percentage of U.K. ads use humor? Explain. How might an ad agency use this information?

Solutions

VerifiedThis study aims to find out whether a higher proportion of ads in the UK use humor. We will use the $95|%$ intervals from parts a and b of this problem.

As we know, on one hand, a $95%$ confidence for the proportion of randomly chosen $400$ television ads in the United Kingdom and $142$ of them use humor is $[0.3081,0.4019].$ On the other hand, the same percentage confidence for the proportion of randomly chosen $500$ television ads in the United States and $122$ of them use humor is $[0.2064,0.2816].$ Looking at and comparing those two intervals we can conclude that the confidence interval for the proportion with the same percentage confidence is greater in the U.K. than in the U.S. Using that and the obvious that the upper limit in the interval for the U.S. is lower than the lower limit in the interval for the U.K. we can conclude that the greater percentage of ads in the U.K. are using the humor. An ad agency can use this information in a way to increase the use of humor in U.S. commercials which will help increase the viewership of advertisements there.

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