## Related questions with answers

Question

Suppose $f(3)=2$, $f^{\prime}(3)=\frac{1}{2}$, and $f^{\prime}(x)>0$ and $f^{\prime \prime}(x)<0$ for all $x$. Is it possible that $f^{\prime}(2)=\frac{1}{3}$? Why?

Solution

VerifiedAnswered 5 months ago

Answered 5 months ago

Step 1

1 of 3$f'(2) \text{\textgreater} f'(3)$ because f"(x) $\text{\textless} 0$

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