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VN07 - Life Stage Nursing Care and Support
Terms in this set (162)
Define the function of the Endocrine system:
A collection of ductless glands, which produce hormones and deliver them into the bloodstream, lymph or tissue fluid and is responsible for the regulation of the body
What are hormones?
Chemicals that travel through the bloodstream until they reach their target organ and exert an effect
Of or relating to a hormone that is transported in the bloodstream to the target organ
Where is the control centre of the Endocrine system?
Where is the Hypothalamus?
It sits at the base of the brain and connects the Endocrine system with the Nervous system
Which hormones does the Hypothalamus produce?
Releasing hormones which control the Pituitary gland
What is the Pituitary gland also known as?
What is the function of the Pituitary gland (Hypophysis)?
Responds to the releasing hormones secreted by the Hypothalamus by producing stimulating hormones, which are sent out to individual organs
What does the Pituitary gland (Hypophysis) consist of?
An anterior and a posterior section - produces different hormones
What is the Anterior Pituitary Gland also known as?
What is the Posterior Pituitary Gland also known as?
Which hormones does the Posterior Pituitary Gland (Neurohypophysis) produce?
- Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
What is Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) also know as?
What is Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) released in response to?
An increase in plasma osmotic pressure (as detected by baroreceptors)
Where does the Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) target?
The distal convoluted tubules in the Kidney, increasing their permeability
What does the Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) cause an increase in?
The resorption of water, increasing plasma volume and reducing the volume of urine produced
Where does Oxytocin target?
The uterus during parturition causing contraction of the smooth muscle
Other than the uterus, where does Oxytocin also act on?
The muscles lining the mammary glands, resulting in milk let down
What is milk let down?
The release of milk from the breast
Which hormones does the Anterior Pituitary Gland (Adenohypophysis) produce?
- Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
- Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
- Growth Hormone (GH)
- Luteinizing hormone (LH)
- Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Where does the Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) target?
The adrenal gland cortex
What does the Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) stimulate the release of?
Corticosteroids and Mineralocorticoids
Where does the Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) target?
In males - Sertoli cells
In females - the Ovaries
What does the Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) stimulate the release of?
In males - Spermatogenesis
In females - the growth of the follicles which contain the Ova (eggs)
What is the Growth hormone (GH) also known as?
What does the Growth hormone (GH) act on?
All tissues of the body
How does the Growth hormone (GH) stimulate growth?
By increasing the uptake of amino acids and protein production
Which hormone is fat deposition increased by?
The growth hormone (GH)
Where does the Luteinizing hormone (LH) target?
In males - Leydig cells
In females - the Ovaries
What does the Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulate the release of?
In males - testosterone
In females - causes ovulation and the development of the corpus luteum
Where does Prolactin target?
The mammary glands
What does Prolactin stimulate?
Development during pregnancy and milk let down following parturition
Where does the Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) target?
The thyroid gland
What does the Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) stimulate the release of?
What does Thyroxine control?
Where is the Pineal gland located?
Within the brain
What does the Pineal gland produce?
What does the Pineal gland release Melatonin in response to?
What is Melatonin responsible for?
The functions of the body related to photoperiod such as reproduction, behaviour and cost changes
What are Follicle-stimulating hormones (FSH) and Luteinizing hormones?
What is Testosterone produced by?
The Leydig cells in response to Luteinizing hormone (LH)
In males, what is Oestrogen produced by?
The Sertoli cells in the seminiferous tubules
In females, what is Oestrogen produced by?
The developing follicles during the oestrous cycle
What is Oestrogen responsible for?
The physical and behavioural signs of oestrous
What is produced by the Corpus Luteum?
Which shape can the queens uterus be best described as?
What is progesterone responsible for?
The maintenance of pregnancy and the signs associated with metoestrus
What is the correct term used to describe a nose bleed?
State a breed of dog that is pre disposed to laryngeal paralysis:
What are examples of Exocrine glands?
- Sweat glands
- Salivary glands
Of or relating to a hormone that is released through a duct or ducts
What is Gastrin the secretion of?
The Gastrointestinal Tract
Which organ produces Erythropoietin?
What does does Erythropoietin stimulate?
The bone marrow to produce red blood cells (erythrocytes)
When is Erythropoietin produced?
When the oxygen levels in the blood are low
What is the secretion of many hormones controlled by?
What is negative feedback?
Where increased levels of hormone are detected by a gland and result in decreased levels of hormone production by that gland
What is positive feedback?
Where increased levels of a hormone are detected by a gland and result in even more hormone being produced by that gland
What is released when a patient has low glucose?
What is released when a patient has high glucose?
Negative feedback (thermoregulation):
What happens to the body with a low temperature?
The body shivers
Negative feedback (thermoregulation):
What happens to the body with a high temperature?
Negative feedback (osmoregulation):
What is released when a patient is dehydrated?
ADH (Antidiuretic hormone) to retain water
What is congenital?
Present at birth
Develops over a period of time
What is the length of the Pro-Oestrus stage in the bitch?
In the bitch, between what age is the onset of cyclical activity (puberty) normally?
Between 6 and 23 months
By what age do most bitches have their first Oestrus?
What is the length of the Oestrus stage in the bitch?
What is the length of the Metoestrus (Dioestrus) stage in the bitch?
What is the length of the Anoestrus stage in the bitch?
What is Polytocous?
Produces numerous offspring in each litter
In the bitch, are their Oestrus cycles non-seasonal?
In the bitch, how long is the interval between each Oestrus cycle?
Between 5 and 13 months - the average is 7
Is the bitch Polytocous?
How many Oestrus cycles does the bitch have per year?
One or two
In the bitch, the end of each Oestrus cycle is signified by the presence of what?
The 'season' - signalled by the presence of a bloody vulval discharge
When is the bitch considered to be 'out of season'?
Once the vulval discharge has stopped
What is the correct sequence of the Oestrus cycle in the bitch?
Pro-oestrus, Oestrus, Metoestrus and Anoestrus
At which stage of the Oestrus cycle would the bitch show an interest in the male but not allow mating?
When does a queen typically cycle?
From February to September
What is seasonally polyoestrus?
Multiple oestrus cycles only during certain periods of the year
Is the queen seasonally polyoestrus?
Unmated queens return to Oestrus at intervals of how many days?
Queens that ovulate but do not become pregnant generally return to Oestrus after how many days?
How long does Pro-oestrus last in the queen?
During which stage will the queen not accept mating?
How long does Oestrus last in the queen?
Between 2 to 10 days
What is Interoestrus?
The queen enters a stage of non-receptivity in the absence of mating, or when mating does not result in ovulation and the signs of oestrus gradually decline
How long does the Interoestrus stage last?
Between 3 and 14 days
What happens after the Interoestrus stage?
The queen returns to pro-oestrus and oestrus
In the queen, how is ovulation induced?
By coitus - said to be induced ovulators
What is the name of the 'water bag' that ruptures at birth?
In which species is Polydactyl mainly found?
What is Monoestrus?
Only one oestrus period in the breeding season
What is Spontaneous Ovulation?
Ovulates when mated or not
What is an induced ovulator?
The act of ovulating due to an externally-derived stimulus during or just prior to mating
What is lactational anoestrus?
The absence of cyclical activity during lactation
Working in partnership, who operates the health screening programmes for dogs?
The British Veterinary Association (BVA) and the Kennel Club
Collectively, what are the health screening programmes known as?
The Canine Health Schemes
What do the Canine Health Schemes enable?
Breeders to screen their dogs for inherited diseases so that they can make informed decisions regarding suitability for breeding
What is the ultimate aim of the Canine Health Schemes?
To reduce disease prevalence over time by selective breeding
Which health screening programmes are available?
- Hip Dysplasia Scheme
- Elbow Dysplasia Scheme
- Eye Scheme
- Chiari-like Malformation/Syringomyelia Scheme
What is Hip Dysplasia?
A common inherited orthopaedic problem in dogs which is caused by abnormal development of the structures that make up the hip joint
In which breeds is Hip Dysplasia most common?
Larger dogs breeds such as;
- Labrador Retriever
- Golden Retriever
- German Shepherd Dog
- Bernese Mountain Dog
What secondary changes does Hip Dysplasia lead to?
- Degenerative Joint Disease
When did the BVA/KC Hip Dysplasia Scheme start operating?
How many dog breeds does the BVA/KC Hip Dysplasia Scheme survey?
The scheme is open to all breeds and cross-breeds
What does the Hip Dysplasia Scheme consist of?
Radiographic examination of young adult dogs (at least 12 months of age) prior to breeding
Which radiographs are required for the Hip Dysplasia Scheme?
Ventrodorsal - of the pelvis
What does a low hip score (Hip Dysplasia Scheme) indicate?
The less the degree of hip dysplasia present
What is a hip score (Hip Dysplasia Scheme)?
The sum of the points accrued for each of nine radiographic features in each hip joint
What is the minimum (BEST) score for each hip (Hip Dysplasia Scheme)?
What is the maximum (WORST) score for each hip (Hip Dysplasia Scheme)?
What is the range for the total score of both hips (Hip Dysplasia Scheme)?
0 to 106
What is Elbow Dysplasia?
Abnormal development of the elbow joint, possibly caused by one or more primary lesions including - an ununited anconeal process, a fragmented or ununited medial coronoid process and osteochondritis dissecans
What secondary changes does Elbow Dysplasia lead to?
A secondary osteoarthritis process, causing pain and lameness
Which breeds are most at risk to Elbow Dysplasia?
- Basset Hound
- Bernese Mountain Dog
- Dogue de Bordeaux
- German Shepherd Dog
- Great Dane
- Irish Water Spaniel
- Irish Wolfhound
- Large Munsterlander
- Golden Retriever
- Labrador Retriever
- St Bernard
What does the Elbow Dysplasia Scheme consist of?
The interpretation of radiographs taken by the Veterinary Surgeon
How many radiographic views are required for the Elbow Dysplasia Scheme?
Two views of each elbow joint
What would the number 0 represent in the Elbow Dysplasia Scheme?
What would the number 1 represent in the Elbow Dysplasia Scheme?
Mild elbow dysplasia
What would the number 2 represent in the Elbow Dysplasia Scheme?
Moderate elbow dysplasia or presence of a primary lesion
What would the number 3 represent in the Elbow Dysplasia Scheme?
Severe elbow dysplasia
How is Elbow Dysplasia scored?
Each elbow is given a score and the highest score is used to grade the dog
Working in partnership, who operates the Hereditary Eye Disease Scheme?
The British Veterinary Association (BVA), the Kennel Club (KC) and the International Sheep Dog Society (ISDS)
In which year was the Hereditary Eye Disease Scheme operated?
What is the main purpose of the Hereditary Eye Disease Scheme?
To ensure the dog has no evidence of an inherited eye problem prior to breeding and with time, disease prevalence can be reduced
At what age are adult dogs examined under the Hereditary Eye Disease Scheme?
1 year of age and before they are used for breeding
For breeds in which congenital/early onset hereditary ocular problems are known to be a problem, at what age is litter screening performed under the Hereditary Eye Disease Scheme?
Between the age of 5 and 12 weeks
How often is examination recommended after the initial examination under the Hereditary Eye Disease Scheme?
What is Syringomyelia (SM)?
A high heritability neurological condition, characterised by fluid-filled cavities (syrinxes) within the spinal cord, which usually occurs in association with a deformity of the brain known as Chiari-like malformation (CM)
In which breed is Syringomyelia (SM) most common?
Cavalier King Charles Spaniel
How is Chiari-like Malformation/Syringomyelia diagnosed under the Chiari-like Malformation/Syringomyelia Scheme?
By Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
What does the Chiari-like Malformation/Syringomyelia Scheme consist of?
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) of the brain and upper spinal cord is performed after 1 year of age under general anaesthetic
Currently, how many different inherited eye diseases does the Hereditary Eye Disease Scheme allow for certification and across how many different breeds?
12 inherited diseases across 62 breeds
How is pupil dilation performed under the Hereditary Eye Disease Scheme?
Using a topical ophthalmic mydriatic agent such as 1% tropicamide, which is effective within 20-30 minutes and lasts 6-8 hours
What is Gonioscopy?
Is used to assess the drainage angle for an inherited abnormality called pectinate ligament abnormality (goniodysgenesis) and is considered to be a risk factor for glaucoma
How often is Gonioscopy advised?
Every 3 years in predisposed breeds
If nursing a patient with an increased ALT and ALP, which organ is most likely to be an issue?
If nursing a patient with an increased UREA and CREA, which organ is most likely to be an issue?
Which electrolytes are specific when carrying out diagnostics for Acute Renal Failure?
Potassium and Phosphate
Which electrolytes are specific when carrying out diagnostics for Chronic Renal Failure?
What is Uremia?
High levels of UREA in the blood, a common sign of Kidney failure
A diet deficient in Vitamin D could lead to which disease in young animals?
What is coitus?
What is Cryptorchidism?
Undescended (hidden) testes - usually unilateral (one testicle present within the scrotum and the other retained within the abdomen)
What is the treatment of Cryptorchidism?
Removal of both testes as there is a high incidence of neoplasia within the abdominal testicle
Can Cryptorchidism be inherited?
Abnormal growth of cells, also known as a tumour
The absence of the testes
Inflammation of the testes
Primary abnormalities in the secretion of pituitary hormones resulting in poor development of gonadal tissue
In the male dog, how common are testicular tumours?
The second most common tumour to affect the male dog
What are the three common types of testicular tumour?
- Leydig Cell tumour
- Sertoli Cell tumour
- Seminoma (those affecting the germ cells)
In the dog, which prostate abnormalities are common?
- Benign enlargement (Hyperplasia)
- Bacterial prostatitis
- Prostatic cysts
- Prostatic tumours
What are the clinical signs of prostate abnormalities?
- Dysuria (difficulty urinating)
- Difficulty defecating
- The presence of blood within urine or semen
A condition where there is inability to extrude the penis, due to an abnormally small preputial orifice
Failure to retract the penis into the prepuce, may be due to a small preputial orifice
The persistent enlargement of the penis in the absence of sexual excitement
What is the bitches uterus shape best described as?
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