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2.9 practicals and quizzes

Terms in this set (137)

thoracic inlet, diaphragm, thoracic vert., sternum, ribcage
what composes the thoracic cavity?
diaphragm
pelvic inlet
lumbar vert.
muscular wall
what composes the abdominal cavity?
thoracic cavity
abdominal cavity
pelvic cavity
what are the three divisions of the internal cavities of the body?
support, protection, respiration

thoracic wall:
protects heart, lungs, and major blood vessels

abdominal wall:
protects the liver, GI tract, and urinary system
functions of both the thoracic wall and the abdominal wall
cutaneous trunci- responsible for twitching of the skin
what muscle would this be?
superficial fascia
what is the white bit called?
sternum and vert.
ribs articulate with what and what?
12
how many intercostal spaces does the dog have?
proximal- bone
distal- cartilage
proximal end of a rib is what? distal?
intersternebral cartilage
type of cartilage of ribs 1-9
costal arch
type of cartilage for ribs 10-12
no cartilage- called floating rib. palpable.
type of cartilage for rib 13
runs between the hears of corresponding pairs of ribs

helps stabilize the ribs and the inervertebral discs

on ribs 1-10
intercapital ligament
inspiration- the active process of breathing in
-diaphragm flattens/contracts: ribs pulled cranially and laterall

expiration- passive process of breathing out
-diaphragm relaxes/domes: ribs collapse caudally and medially
describe inspiration vs expiration
ensure the ribs move together during inspiration and expiration, and therefore function as a single unit

external intercostal muscles= caudoventral fibres

internal= cranioventral fibres
function of the intercostal muscles
1- foreleg
2- latissimus dorsi muscle
3- pectoral muscle
4- external abdominal obliques

all superficial muscles
label the muscles
serratus ventralis- accessory inspirator. Helps suspend weight of the animal's thorax between the forelimbs art rest. is also a major inspirator during exervise

a deep muscle
what is 5
helps support the weight of the abdominal contents- helps assist with the passive collapse of the ribcage during expiration. Also helps speed up inspiration during exercise
function of the external abdominal oblique
bc intercostal veins, arteries, and nerves run down the caudal aspect
why aim for the middle when making an incision through intercostal space?
where the lateral abdominal wall muscles insert
aponeurosis
cramaster
what muscle changes the teste position for heat/danger?
artery: pudendal

nerve: genitofemoral
which artery and nerve run through the inguinal canal in dogs?
•cranial abdominal A
•cranial epigastric A
•caudal epigastric A
•deep circumflex iliac A
4 major blood vessels that supply the body wall
The temperature below which an animal will have to increase its metabolic rate to stay warm
What environmental temperature does Lower Critical Temperature refer to when discussing animals and their environment?
hard palate
What separates the nasal cavity from the oral cavity?
nasal bones
label 1
paranasal sinus
label 2
Indirectly via the nasomaxillary opening
how does 2 communicate with the nasal cavity?
nasopharynx
Where is the entrance to the auditory tubes located?
nasal vestibule
Where are the openings of the nasolacrimal ducts located in the dog ?
larynx
what is 2
frontal sinus
what is 1
linear segmented RNA genome
Which of the following virus genome types is associated with reassortment ?
avian
H3N2 influenza virus was first detected in dogs in 2008. From which reservoir did this virus emerge?
Feline calicivirus, feline herpesvirus, feline panleucopenia virus
What viruses does Nobivac Tricat Trio vaccine aim to protect cats against ?
Live attenuated
What type of vaccine is Nobivac Tricat ?
Swelling of the conjunctiva
What does the term chemosis mean ?
FHV targets the eyes and the upper respiratory tract. Primary infection often presents as cat 'flu in kittens. Following clinical recovery, FHV remains latent in the nerve ganglia of the head. Subsequent to a period of stress, the virus can be re-activated (recrudescence) and may cause clinical signs, which are often mild and localised. FHV is a lifelong infection.

The other differential diagnoses for feline conjunctivitis are Chlamydophila felis and Mycoplasma felis. However, the history of cat 'flu and recent stress (cattery) suggests that FHV is the most likely diagnosis.
Should you wish to self mark - award marks for the following up to 5 marks maximum :
1) FHV affects eyes as well as respiratory system
2) can cause cat ''flu' on primary infection
3) infects for life (as virus remains latent in ganglia)
4) it causes recurring infections , often milder disease than primary infection
5) recrudescence of virus can be associated with stress
6) comment re differential diagnosis and/or other justification of choice of FHV
why feline herpesvirus (FHV) is a possible infectious cause of Marmalade's presentation.
Not suitable for vaccinated cats → FHV neutralisation assay

Highly sensitive; very low virus loads can be detected → FHV real time PCR

Highly specific; false positive results should not occur → FHV isolation
The vet decides to submit a sample to confirm a diagnosis of FHV infection. The following is a list of commercially available tests for FHV : FHV neutralisation assay, FHV isolation, FHV real-time PCR.

Choose the test that BEST fits the following statements:

Not suitable for vaccinated cats

Highly sensitive; very low virus loads can be detected

Highly specific; false positive results should not occur
fluorescence
A real-time PCR machine detects the target DNA sequence using what technology?
how many pcrs were run in this assay?= 40

how many replicates for each sample?= 3

which sample had the highest viral load?= sample 1

what was the appropriate ct value for marmalade's sample?= CT 32-34
how many pcrs were run in this assay?
how many replicates for each sample?
which sample had the highest viral load?
what was the appropriate ct value for marmalade's sample?
it is derived from the intersection of the threshold line with the amplication curve
How is the Ct value calculated ?
1. fluorescein eye drops
2. lab contamination by PCR product (containing the genetic sequence targeted in qPCR assay)
3. vaccine virus
False positive real-time PCR results can occur for FHV. Give 3 potential causes of a false-positive result in this test
To reduce the clinical signs caused by FHV
According to the datasheet for this vaccine product, what is the aim of vaccinating a cat against FHV?
To reduce FHV shedding

FHV vaccination does not prevent infection of cats with circulating (wild type) strains of FHV in the environment. Reducing the length of time for which (wild type) virus is shed in infected animals results in reduction of levels of virus in the environment and thus limits virus spread to other individuals within a population of animals. Thus although reduction of clinical disease is a primary aim of vaccination, reduction of (wild type) virus shedding is also often a desired outcome of vaccination.
Although not specified on the product data sheet which of the following additional outcomes might also be expected from the herpesvirus component of the vaccine
FHV infections may be latent. FHV is shed intermittently and for short periods following recrudescence. Thus, although clinical symptoms may have been associated with feline herpesvirus recrudescence, by the time sampling occurs virus shedding may have ceased. qPCR for FHV requires presence of FHV genome in sample submitted to lab.


Other valid answers - degradation of virus/genome between sampling and receipt by diagnostic lab, insufficient virus/genome present for positive assay result (especially for less sensitive virus isolation test (which assays infectious virus)), failure of some step in the qPCR assay (though the lab should be able to detect this last example by use of appropriate controls and should then re-analyse the sample)
Explain why false negative results are common with FHV testing, irrespective of what test is used.
Probably not. Marmalade was likely to be infected with FHV as an 7-week old kitten (clinical history of cat 'flu), which was prior to vaccination. Consequently infection with FHV is lifelong. In any event, the vaccine does not prevent infection with FHV, and is used to reduce the clinical signs caused by FHV.
Are Marmalade's clinical signs attributable to a vaccine failure? Discuss.

her signs: Marmalade is a 6-year old male neutered DSH cat in a single-cat household with outdoor access. He has been vaccinated annually with the Nobivac(r) Tricat Trio vaccine, MSD Animal Health, starting with a kitten course at 9 and 12 weeks of age. Marmalade has spent 7 days in a local cattery. Within 2 days of returning home his owners report that he has developed runny eyes and is sneezing.They have brought him to be examined by the vet, with whom you are seeing practice.
Ensure adequate protective titres to reduce clinical signs → Only admit fully vaccinated cats

Reduce the concentration of virus in the environment → Provide adequate ventilation, low relative humidity and optimal environmental temperatures

Prevent spread of viruses via sneezed droplets → House cats individually with solid barriers between cats

Prevent FHV recrudescence → Minimise stress

Prevent indirect spread between cats → Disinfect hands between each pen
Boarding catteries take measures to minimise outbreaks of respiratory disease. Apply the most appropriate measures to each specified aim:

Ensure adequate protective titres to reduce clinical signs

Reduce the concentration of virus in the environment

Prevent spread of viruses via sneezed droplets

Prevent FHV recrudescence

Prevent indirect spread between cats
Recombinant feline interferon omega
Which ONE of these antiviral drugs used to treat FHV-associated disease is licensed to treat named virus infections in UK cats?

Recombinant human interferon alpha
Famciclovir
Recombinant feline interferon omega
Acyclovir
Feline leukaemia virus, Feline immunodeficiency virus
Recombinant feline interferon omega is licensed to treat which TWO of the following virus infections in cats?
carbonic acid

CO2 + H20
H2CO3
bicarbonate

Your blood brings bicarbonate to your lungs, and then it is exhaled as carbon dioxide.
HCO3-
O2 tension increases in the conducting airway due to its narrow confines
On considering the elements of the gradient for O2 diffusion from atmosphere to tissue which one of the following is false?

Systemic venous blood shows no difference in PO2 to typical tissue PO2 so there is no gradient by this point in the circuit

Alveolar air to pulmonary arterial blood PO2 gradient increases with deep hyperventilation

PAO2 is lower than PatmO2 by about 1/3

Shallow hyperventilation may have little influence on PAO2

O2 tension increases in the conducting airway due to its narrow confines
retention of CO2 in lungs will raise blood pH
Given the relationship CO2 + H20 Þ H2CO3 ÞHCO3- + H+ which ONE of the following statements is FALSE?

respiratory homeostasis relies on Total body VdotCO2 matching alveolar VdotCO2

a normal respiratory response to low PatmO2 will increase plasma pH

retention of CO2 in lungs will raise blood pH

hyperventilation and raised VA will decrease plasma (H+)

H+ ion buffering capacity will limit the amount of CO2 carried dissolved in plasma
PO2 (partial pressure of oxygen) reflects the amount of oxygen gas dissolved in the blood. It primarily measures the effectiveness of the lungs in pulling oxygen into the blood stream from the atmosphere.
PO2
collapsed alveoli lead to increased lung compliance
Thin-walled alveoli are liable to collapse. Which one of the following statements is false ?

a state of high compliance ensures minimal energy expenditure during breathing

alveolar epithelial cells synthesise surfactants to reduce water surface tension

collapsed alveoli lead to increased lung compliance

pulmonary embolism reduce metabolic efficiency and increases risk of lung collapse

alveolar collapse increases the work of inhalation
reverse transcriptase
The amplification of RNA target requires which of the following reagents in addition to standard PCR in which DNA target is amplified ?

Buffer

Taq polymerase

reverse transcriptase

dNTPs

primers
primers
In a diagnostic PCR reaction, which component has the largest impact on the specificity of the reaction (in crude terms, the ability of the PCR to amplify the desired segment of the target nucleic acid) ?
pulmonary artery
Which blood vessel supplies the lung with deoxygenated blood?
trachea- carries air to and from the lungs
What is the name of the tubular structure labelled 1 ? What is its function?
Incisor teeth to point of shoulder
what are the correct landmarks for measuring the appropriate length of an endotracheal tube?
decreased alveolar ventilation
Hypoxia would occur under which ONE of the following conditions ?

decreased atmospheric PC02

decreased alveolar ventilation

decreased dead space perfusion

decreased dead space volume

hyperventilation
left: right lateral (animal in right lateral recumbency)

right: left lateral (animal in left lateral recumbency)
which views?
left: dorsoventral (sternal recumbency)

right: ventrodorsal (dorsal recumbency)
which views?
where is the beam centered in each?

dorsoventral: scapulae

ventrodorsal: sternum
just caudal to the scapula and 2/3 of the way down the thorax.
where is the beam centered in each?
top is right lateral
bottom is left lateral

markers indicate
what views
top to bottom:

caudal
cranial
accessory
middle
label the lung lobes
top to bottom:
right cranial (left side)
left cranial (right side)
right middle
left caudal
right caudal
accessory
label the lung lobes
lung! only surface can be assessed on ultrasound
what is this
...
Name the plasma protein that leaks from vessels during acute inflammation to polymerize and form the soft adhesions you named in Q5
...
Name at least 2 neoplasms that commonly metastasise to the lungs
...
Alveolar air and systemic arterial blood O2 tension in a student were respectively: PAO2 = 100mmHg, PaO2 = 70mmHg. Which ONE of the following is the best explanation:-
external respiration

internal respiration
two processes of respiration?
the volume of gas inspired at each breath
tidal volume (Ve)
alveoli
where does gas exchange occur in the pulmonary capillary blood?
the volume of air exchanged in the alveoli
alveolar ventilation (Va)
when gas is inspired, a certain volume is exchanged with the pulmonary capillary bed by the alveoli.

The rest is not exchanged, this volume of unexchanged air is called dead space.
dead space
less gas is available to be exchanged
How is Alveolar Ventilation affected by an increase in Dead Space?
panting isn't full breaths, so there isn't efficient alveolar exchange.

Panting allows a dog to rapidly inhale, humidify, then exhale the air, which increases the evaporation of water from your dog's nose and lungs. The evaporation of water cools the body from the inside out.
What is happening during panting in a dog? What does panting achieve?
dead space
which gas is expelled first?
the volume of gas expired at each breath

made up of alveolar ventilation and dead space ventilation
expired volume (Ve)
VCO2 = Volume of Carbon Dioxide
VE = Volume of Expired gas
FECO2 = Carbon Dioxide Fraction in Expired Gas
VA = Volume of Alveolar Gas
FACO2 = Carbon Dioxide Fraction in Alveolar Gas
V̇A = Alveolar Ventilation Rate
V̇E = Expired Gas Ventilation Rate
what do these each mean?

VCO2
VE
FECO2
VA
FACO2
VA
VE
The volume of CO2 produced per breath is the product of expired gas volume and the fractional concentration of CO2.

But since inspired gas normally contains virtually no CO2, all the CO2 in mixed expired gas must come from the alveoli.

VCO2 = VA x FACO2
VCO2 = VE x FECO2

meaning
VA = VE x FECO2/FACO2
So the volume of CO2 produced per breath is:

AKA alveolar ventilation rate
repiratory valve unity
what is this
three way stopcock
what is this
Douglas bag- holds 100 litres

for collecting EXPIRED gas
what is this
wet gas meter for measurement of expired gas volume
what is this
record of breathing pattern- records by air moving into the tambour
kymograph
changes length with each breath to push air into the tambour
stethograph
P(x)= Partial Pressure of Gas X
F(x) = Fractional Concentration of Gas X
PB = Atmospheric Pressure
PH2O = Water Vapour Pressure at Body Temperature
what do the following mean?

P(x)

F(x)

PB

PH2O
768mm Hg
standard atmospheric pressure
1- less oxygen

2- increases these i think????
How will climbing to 1,200 feet affect:

(1) The O2 composition of air breathed
(2) The partial pressure of oxygen inspired and, therefore also, the alveolar PO2
V̇CO2 = Rate of Carbon Dioxide Production
V̇E = Rate of Expiration
FECO2 = Fraction of Carbon Dioxide in Expired Gas
V̇I = Rate of Inspiration
FICO2 = Fraction of Carbon Dioxide in Inspired Gas
what do the following mean?

VCO2

VE

FECO2

VI

FICO2
The figures could be explained by a pathological right to left shunt
Alveolar air and systemic arterial blood O2 tension in a student were respectively: PAO2 = 100mmHg, PaO2 = 70mmHg.

Which ONE of the following is the best explanation:-

These values can be explained by low pulmonary Q

The student may just have been breath-holding

These values would be reasonable for someone living at high altitude

These are typical values for a healthy person

The figures could be explained by a pathological right to left shunt
you will have decreased VA
In a situation where you are rebreathing room air (from a bag) which ONE of the following scenarios is false?
Select one:

you will have decreased VA

you have raised inspired PCO2

very likely f will have increased

you have increased VE
you will have substantially raised CpvO2
After Hyperventilation with pure O2 which ONE of the following scenarios is false?

you will have markedly raised PpvO2

you will have substantially raised CpvO2

you will have increased breath-holding time but not by an effect on blood O2 loading

you will see lower PACO2

you will see raised P AO2
atmospheric air is 21% O2
About respiration in a climber on top of Mt Everest, assuming Patm there = 247mmHg. Only ONE of the following statements is correct
Select one:

tracheal air PO2 will be about 149mmHg-

survival is threatened by resulting anaemic hypoxia

inspired (atmospheric) air PO2 will be 160 mmHg

atmospheric air is 21% O2

Low pressure gradient from atm to lung makes breathing difficult
it should be collected at the end of exhalation
To measure alveolar gas composition, which one is CORRECT?
Select one:

it will contain air with more water vapour than dead space

It should be collected at the start of exhalation

its CO2 tension will be similar to dead space

it should be collected at the end of exhalation

its O2 tension will be similar to dead space
false: lower alveolar water vapour pressure
Which one of the following is FALSE? Breath-holding will

lower alveolar water vapour pressure

raise PACO2

break when PaCO2 exceeds 40mmHg

lower PAO2

Lower VdotE
VdotA is 5.0 l min-1
Minute expired volume in a male student was measured as 6.5 l/min. fR = 20 min-1.

Which ONE of the following is FALSE Assuming that VA is 2/3 of VE ?-

VE is 325ml/breath

Only 215ml fresh inspired air is available per breath for respiratory gas exchange

VD is 110ml/breath

VdotE = 6.5 l min-1

VdotA is 5.0 l min-1
The size and number of the airways
Anatomic dead space is determined by:
It is primarily due to the effect of CO2 on pH and on haemoglobin.
What of the following statements about the Bohr effect is correct?
Select one:

It shifts the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the left in the tissues.

It is primarily due to the effect of CO2 on pH and on haemoglobin.

It increases the levels of 2,3-DPG in red blood cells.

It is related to chloride exchange processes in the red blood cell.

It enhances CO2 uptake from the tissues and CO2 unloading in the lung.
The metabolic demands of the body

The work of breathing

The compliance and resistance of their respiratory system

The minimal oxygen cost of breathing
A person's respiratory rate at rest is determined by:
Stimulate central chemoreceptors

Stimulate peripheral chemoreceptors
Breath-holding for 90 seconds will:
An increase in alveolar PCO2 with a decrease in alveolar PO2
An increase in dead space ventilation without a change in tidal volume will result in:
0.5 L
If a patient's total lung capacity is 5.0 L with a tidal volume of 0.5 L, an inspiratory reserve volume of 3.0 L, and an expiratory reserve volume of 1.0 L, then the residual volume is:
alveolar type 2 cells
Surfactants are released from which cells in the lung?
increased pco2
Which of the following factors is associated with enhanced O2 release to the tissues?
43mm hg
The inspired oxygen tension at the level of the trachea when an individual is at the summit of Mt. Everest (barometric pressure, 250 mmHg, water vapor pressure, 47 mmHg) is approximately:

(clue: use the equation in the lecture which describes the relationship between PO2 , barometric pressure and water vapour pressure, remember % oxygen in air is 21%)
medulla oblongata
The respiratory control centre is located in the:
6 L/min
The minute ventilation of an individual with a tidal volume of 500 mL and a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute is:
PaCO2
Central chemoreceptors respond to changes in:
Decrease surface tension at all lung volumes
Which of the following is TRUE about surfactants?

Increase surface tension at low lung volumes and decrease surface tension at high lung volumes

Decrease surface tension at all lung volumes

Are resistant to hypoxia and sheer stress

Are produced by type I epithelial cells
hypercarbia

hypoxia

change in pH
The carotid body responds to:
Airway radius is large, airways are in parallel, gas is of low viscosity
Flow resistance across a set of airways is lowest under the following conditions:
A lack of significant changes in arterial blood gases
Moderate levels of exercise result in:
They respond to decreases in PO2 and O2 content.
Which of the following statements is NOT true about peripheral chemoreceptors?

They respond to decreases in PO2 and O2 content.

They respond to changes in arterial pH.

They respond to increases in PCO2.

They account for ∼40% of the ventilatory response to CO2.

They are rich in dopamine.
hyperventilation, a decrease in inspired oxygen, a respiratory alkalosis, and a rightward shift of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve
Ascent to high altitude is associated with:
the nose to the larynx
The airways most responsible for the resistance of the respiratory system during nasal breathing are:
a lowering of the resting heart rate
The effects of training on the ability to perform exercise can be described as:
It enhances CO2 uptake from the tissues and CO2 unloading in the lung
Haldane effect
fractional concentration of gas
what is F?
Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis in cattle
The disease caused by Histophilus somni is
donkeys
In which animal species would the lungworm parasite Dictyocaulus arnfieldi be found?
Raised arterial PCO2 in the case of acidosis or lowered PCO2 in alkalosis
The primary change in Respiratory acid-base disturbances can be characterised by which one of the following options:
They disrupt bacterial protein synthesis by acting on the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome
Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the tetracycline group of antimicrobial drugs?
The fluoroquinolones
Reduction in the permeability of porins in a bacterium may cause antimicrobial resistance in which group of antimicrobial drugs
low oil:gas partition coefficient
What pharmacokinetic characteristic would you expect in an inhalational anaesthetic that has a high MAC (minimum alveolar concentration)?
Granulomatous pneumonia
Fungal pneumonia is typically associated with which pattern of inflammation?
Interstitial pneumonia
Rib impressions are associated with which pattern of inflammation in the lungs?
PCR vs qPCR
detection at endpoint vs detection in real time (in exponential phase)
"open tube" vs (usually) "closed tube"
more risk vs lower risk of contamination (if "closed tube")
no probes vs probes (in some forms of real time PCR)
non fluorescent DNA detection on gel/other means vs fluorescent detection
eppendorf tubes vs multiwell plates
cheap vs more expensive
simple thermocycler vs more complex thermocycler/detection equipment
non quantitative (in simplest form) vs quantitative (relative/absolute)
Cite 5 differences between standard and quantitative PCR
Please self grade your answer on the basis of the factors outlined below.
Rough marking guidance : 0.5 mark per reference to each factor (e.g. stocking density) and further 0.5 mark for comparison of the two environments in respect of each factor (e.g. stocking density is low in climatic housing but high in controlled environment housing)
Climatic housing
Low stocking density
Large cubic air space per animal
Not insulated
Naturally ventilated
Cheaper than climate controlled housing

Controlled environment housing
High stocking density
Fairly low cubic air space per animal
Well insulated
Carefully controlled ventilation
Expensive to construct
Artificially lit
Outline features which are typical of climatic housing and controlled environment housing (5 marks)
...
What is the most likely impact of hypoventilation on arterial blood gases in a patient breathing room air? Assume that gas exchange is normal.
movement of air in and out of he pulmonary alveoli
ventilation
is the diffusion of oxygen from the alveolar air into pulmonary capillary blood and the diffusion of carbon dioxide in the opposite direction, (i.e. from blood to air)
gas exchange
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