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INFECTIOUS DISEASES

Terms in this set (64)

What of the following microorganisms most frequently cause uncomplicated urinary tract infections?

A. Enterobacter cloacae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Escherichia coli
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Escherichia coli
Complicated cystitis can occur in patients who have underlying complicating conditions such as:

A. presence of urinary catheter
B. colonization from multi-drug resistant microorganisms
C. asymptomatic bacteriuria
D. history of hospitalization in the previous three months
A. presence of urinary catheter
Asymptomatic bacteriuria need to be screened and treated only in selected cases; choose one of the following:

A. HIV infection
B. kidney transplant recipients
C. pregnancy
D. hospitalized patients carrying an indwelling urinary catheter
C. pregnancy
Empiric regimens in patients with community acquired pneumonia (CAP), are designed to target:

A. Atypical pathogens only
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae and atypical pathogens
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa and MRSA
D. Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae and atypical pathogens
Flu viruses are constantly changing; the changes in the envelope glycoproteins (hemagglutinin and neuraminidase) are defined antigenic shifts and drifts.Antigenic shifts are:

A. major changes
B. changes occurring only in one of the two envelope glycoprotein
C. minor changes
D. changes associated with more localized outbreaks
A. major changes
The treatment with neuraminidase inhibitors in cases of influenza in recommended to reduce the rate of complications in:

A. patients without anti-pneumococcal vaccination
B. unvaccinated for flu
C. patients with concomitant pneumonia
D. pregnant
D. pregnant
Pontiac fever is:

A. a COVID-19 related syndrome
B. a self-limiting acute febrile illness caused by Legionella spp.
C. a fever frequently observed in travellers returning from tropical areas
D. typically observed in patients with endocarditis
B. a self-limiting acute febrile illness caused by Legionella spp.
What kind of isolation is required for an hospitalized patient with a suspected or confirmed pneumonia caused by Legionella:

A. single room and contact precautions only
B. none
C. droplet isolation
D. respiratory isolation
B. none
The exposure to some antimicrobials predispose Clostridium difficile infections:

A. Macrolides
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Cephalosporin
D. Rifampicin
C. Cephalosporin
In early syphilis, following the acquisition of Treponema pallidum, the initial clinical manifestation is:

A. a localized skin lesion that begins as a papule that soon ulcerates; it is typically painless
B. a generalised self-limiting rash
C. alopecia
D. fever associated with lymph node enlargement
A. a localized skin lesion that begins as a papule that soon ulcerates; it is typically painless
Complications of osteomyelitis include:

A. vasculopathy
B. sinus tract formation
C. endocarditis
D. Clostridium difficile infection
B. sinus tract formation
In septic arthritis predisposing factors include:

A. hospitalization
B. recent abdominal surgery
C. intravenous drug use
D. being colonized by a multidrug resistant microorganism
C. intravenous drug use
A Brodie abscess occur typically:

A. after a trauma
B. in the setting of subacute or chronic osteomyelitis in long bones
C. in some cases of septic arthritis
D. in cases implant retention after a prosthetic joint infection
B. in the setting of subacute or chronic osteomyelitis in long bones
Which among these antibiotics is/are bactericidal:

A. Macrolides
B. Beta-lactams
C. Tetracyclines
D. Linezolid
B. Beta-lactams
What is the main goal of antimicrobial stewardship?

A. To reduce costs of hospitalization
B. To reduce antimicrobial resistance
C. To minimize toxicity of antimicrobials
D. To reduce the length of hospitalization
B. To reduce antimicrobial resistance
Health-care-associated infection is defined as an

A. infection developing in a patient hospitalized for > 96 hours before the onset of signs and symptoms consistent with the infection
B. infection developing in a patient hospitalized for > 1 week before the onset of signs and symptoms consistent with the infection
C. infection developing in a patient hospitalized for > 48 hours before the onset of signs and symptoms consistent with the infection
D. infection developing in a patient hospitalized for > 12 hours before the onset of signs and symptoms consistent with the infection
C. infection developing in a patient hospitalized for > 48 hours before the onset of signs and symptoms consistent with the infection
Microorganisms members of the environment, not pathogenic for healthy people who take advantage in case of host disorders are defined as:

A. Obligate parasites
B. Facultative parasites
C. Depending parasites
D. Opportunistic parasites
D. Opportunistic parasites
In highly endemic malaria countries, malaria infections are mostly associated to a less severe disease in residents because of:

A. Development of a partial immunity
B. Reduction over the time of the number of insect bites
C. Genetic factors
D. Type of alimentation
A. Development of a partial immunity
Which is the gold standard test for the diagnosis of Malaria?

A. Rapid Antigenic test
B. Serology (IgM)
C. Blood culture
D. Thin and thick smear
D. Thin and thick smear
Which among those is not a recommended measure to prevent malaria?

A. To assume chemoprophylaxis
B. Sleeping under an insecticide treated bednet
C. Wearing long sleeved shirts and long pants
D. To avoid eating uncooked food
D. To avoid eating uncooked food
Among those, which are NOT common pathogens of bacterial meningitis in elderly people?

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Streptocuccs agalactiae
C. Gram negative bacilli
D. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Streptocuccs agalactiae
In relation to bacterial meningits which affirmation is NOT correct?

A. Pathogens found in community and nosocomial acquired meningitis are the same but differ in frequency
B. Bacterial meningitis is associated with high mortality
C. Chemical characteristics of the cerebrospinal fluid are very important to suspect the disease
D. Gram stain can suggest bacterial etiology
A. Pathogens found in community and nosocomial acquired meningitis are the same but differ in frequency
In the case of a confirmed case of meningitis who should be targeted by chemoprophylaxis?

A. Only close contacts of Neisseria meningiditis meningitis
B. Every type of contact in the case of Neisseria meningitdis meningitis
C. Only close contacts of Streptococcus pneumonia meningitis
D. Close contacts of Listeria monocytogenes and Neisseria meningitides meningitis
A. Only close contacts of Neisseria meningiditis meningitis
What is not true for EBV- virus?

A. After primary infection the virus remains latent into the organism
B. Infection in immunocompetent patients doesn't require a specific treatment
C. It can cause infectious mononucleosis and Kaposi's Sarcoma
D. It can be detected through serological tests (IgM and IgG) and PCR-related assays
C. It can cause infectious mononucleosis and Kaposi's Sarcoma
Which infection has to be treated with antibiotics?

A. Dengue
B. Chikungunya
C. Leptospirosis
D. CMV infection
C. Leptospirosis
Which infection acquired during pregnancy is associated with microcephaly in the newborn?

A. Zika virus infection
B. EBV infection
C. West Nile Virus Infection
D. Dengue infection
A. Zika virus infection
All these factors represent risk factors for infective endocarditis EXCEPT:

A. Injection drug use
B. Prosthetic heart valves
C. A prior history of endocarditis
D. Obesity
D. Obesity
Which one is NOT part of the standard safety procedures?

A. hand hygiene
B. gloves and mask
C. HIV testing prior to surgery
D. disposal of needles
C. HIV testing prior to surgery
What is the most common etiology of CNS infection in newborns?

a) N. Meningitidis
b) E. Coli
c) Herpes Viruses
d) S. Pneumoniae
b) E. Coli
What is the 2016 definition for sepsis?

A. Life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a disregulated host response to infection
B. Persisting state of hypotension requiring vasopressors to maintain a mean arterial pressure of 65 mmHg or higher and a serum lactate level greater than 2 mmol/L (18 mg/dL) despite adequate volume resuscitation
C. Presence of a SIRS, of infectious origin, defined as 2 or more among fever of more than 38°C or less than 36°C, pulse>90bpm, respiratory rate >20 acts/min, WBCs > 12.000/mm3 or <4.000/mm3
D. Presence of bacteria in the blood circulation
A. Life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection
Which of these pathogens is NOT responsible for clear-fluid meningitis?

A. H.Influenzae
B. M.tuberculosis
C. Treponemapallidum
D. L.Monocytogenes
A. H.Influenzae
Which of these pathogens is NOT responsible for clear-fluid meningitis?

A. Brucellaspp
B. Staph.Aureus
C. Treponema pallidum
D. L.Monocytogenes
B. Staph.Aureus
The following are NOT sign of meningeal irritation, EXCEPT:

A. Abdominal pain
B. Presence of Saint's triad
C. Brudzinski sign
D. oral candidiasis
C. Brudzinski sign
Which of the following diagnostic investigation is NOT essential in a diagnostic procedure for a patient with presumptive pulmonary tuberculosis?

A. Chest x-ray
B. Tuberculin skin test
C. Search for M.Tuberculosis nucleic acid by molecular techniques in a sample of sputum
D. Microscopy examination of a sample of sputum after Ziehl-Nielsen staining
B. Tuberculins kin test
The Duke criteria for the possible diagnosis of infectious endocarditis include, as major criteria, all the following EXCEPT:

A. Positive blood cultures
B. Evidence of septic emboli (i.e. skin, brain)
C. Hypercaptation inprosthetic valve implantation at PET
D. Presence of vegetations at echocardiography
B. Evidence of septic emboli (i.e. skin, brain)
Which one is NOT an effective measure in Malaria prevention?

A. impregnated nets
B. hydration
C. chemoprophylaxis
D. standby therapy
B. hydration
Which one is not a group at risk for severe malaria?
A. pregnant and travellers (VFR)
B. no chemoprophylaxis
C. HIV-infected
D. high parasitemia
B. no chemoprophylaxis
Which of these is a characteristic of P.Malariae?

A. quartan fever
B. Malignant and relapsing
C. incubation period <5days
D. often correlated with severe clinical presentation
A. quartan fever
The definition of "Influenza Like Illness" (ILI) includes the following, EXCEPT

A. Fever>38°C
B. At least one constitutional symptom (i.e. headache, malaise, shivering, muscle and joint
pain)
C. At least one respiratory symptom (i.e.cough, throat ache, rhinitis)
D. At least one abdominal symptom (i.e.nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea)
D. At least one abdominal symptom (i.e.nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea)
What is the recommendation for the prevention of flue transmission after hospital admission?

A. use of droplet precautions
B. use of air borne isolation procedures
C. single room
D. no isolation precautions
A. use of droplet precautions
Which of these is a group recommended for antiviral treatment of influenza?

A. young adults
B. chronic HBV infected
C. pregnant
D. previous influenza
C. pregnant
Which one is NOT a risk factor for candidemia?

A. central venous catheter
B. abdominal surgery
C. (end-stage kidney disease) encephalopathy
D. neutropenia
C. (end-stage kidney disease) encephalopathy
What are the patient-related risk factors for C. Difficile infection occurrence?

A. HIV infection, use of antiretrovirals and/or pulmonary tuberculosis
B. CAP (community acquired pneumonia)
C. Antacids
D. ophthalmic surgery
C. Antacids
Which one is NOT part of the antibiotic treatments for C.Difficile infection?

A. i.v. Vancomycin
B. oral metronidazole
C. metronidazole + vancomycin
D. Fidaxomycin
A. i.v. Vancomycin
The diagnosis of UTI is clinical: which of these signs/symptoms is not suggestive of UTI?

A. dysuria and stranguria
B. urethral discharge
C. urinary urgency
D. Pollakiuria
B. urethral discharge
Which of these symptoms are characteristic of UTI in urinary catheter indwelled individuals?

A. lumbarpain, hematuria, fever
B. fever, turbid urines, malaise
A. lumbarpain, hematuria, fever
Which of these is an AIDS-defining event?

A. unexplained persistent fever over 1 month
B. Disseminated mycosis (extrapulmonary histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis)/
microsporidiosis
C. Neurocysticercosis
D. Recurrent Herpes zooster/Simplex infection
B. Disseminated mycosis (extrapulmonary histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis)/
microsporidiosis
What does PrEP consist of?

A. use of three different antiretrovirals after asexual (oroccupational) risk contact for 1 month to avoid the HIV integration
B. the use of daily two antiretrovirals in high risk groups to prevent HIV infection before sexual behaviours
C. insero-discordant couples, the immediate antiretroviral treatment of the seropositive partner to prevent sexual transmission of HIV
D. the association of psychological intervention and systematic HIV-ab test to early diagnose an acute/recent HIV infection
B. the use of daily two antiretrovirals in high risk groups to prevent HIV infection before sexual behaviours
Which parameter is measured to evaluate the efficacy of HIV treatment?

A. HIV viral load
B. CD4 absolute count
C. CD4 percentage count
D. clinical examination
A. HIV viral load
Which one is NOT a time-dependent antibiotic?

A. aminoglycosides
B. vancomycin
C. betalactams
D. Carbapenems
A. aminoglycosides
Which of the following antibiotic is time-dependent?

A. Vancomycin
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Rifampin
D. Anzithromycin
A. Vancomycin
23) Which is NOT an indication to perform blood cultures even without fever?

A. elevated CRP
B. Infective endocarditis
C. sepsis from candida albicans
D. worsening after 48-72hrs after initiation of empiric antibiotic therapy
A. elevated CRP
What is the correct name of a microbe that lives in the environment and normally does not cause disease, but does in certain host conditions such as immunodeficiency?

A. commensal
B. opportunistic parasite
C. saprophyte
B. opportunistic parasite
Which of these sentences about vaccines is FALSE?

A. the only contraindication to vaccination is a previous anaphylaxis
B. vaccines contain heavy metals
C. most collateral effects are not severe
D. vaccines decrease the incidence of non-eradicated diseases
B. vaccines contain heavy metals
Which one is not a risk factor for MDR infections?
A. peritoneal dialysis
B. previous hospitalisation
C. (pregnancy)/ a surgery 2 years before
D. previous antibiotics
C. (pregnancy)/ a surgery 2 years before
In infectious disease, colonization and infection can be differentiated by:

A. during infection the parasites invades the hosts, which does not happen during colonization
B. A parasite landing on the skin is a colonizer, those landing on other sites of the body determine infection
C. Colonization is due to symbiont microorganisms, while infection is due to parasites
D. Infection occurs when a parasite cause symptoms in the host, otherwise we have
colonization
A. during infection the parasites invades the hosts, which does not happen during colonization
Primary Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (PBP) is characterized by all of the following features EXCEPT:

A. PBP is most common among patients with cirrhosis and pre-existing ascites
B. it almost always involves amixed aerobic and anaerobic flora
C. PBP is due to hematogenous spread of organisms to ascitic fluid in patients in whom a disease liver and altered portal circulation compromise the usual filtration function of the liver
D. up to 70% of patients have a recurrence of PBP within 1 year
B. it almost always involves amixed aerobic and anaerobic flora
All the following statement apply to patients affected by cholera, EXCEPT:

A. Incubation period is 24-48h followed by painless watery diarrhea and vomiting that can
cause profound, rapidly progressive dehydration and death within hours
B. Stool are usually very voluminous, do not contain either blood or white blood cells
C. disease is mediated by direct invasion of the gastrointestinal mucosa
D. treatment is based on rapid replacement of fluid, electrolytes, and base. Antibiotics can be
used in conjunction
C. disease is mediated by direct invasion of the gastrointestinal mucosa
The risk of progression from latent tuberculosis infection to overt disease depend on:

A. incidence of tuberculosis in the area of residence
B. exposure to a multidrug resistant strain of M. Tuberculosis
C. Co-existance of immunological disturbances
D. site of infection
C. Co-existance of immunological disturbances
Current recommendations for the prevention of flu transmission include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. hand hygiene
B. use of surgical mask while visiting over crowded communities
C. voluntary home isolation as soon as flu symptoms occur
D. use of airborne isolation procedures whenever admitted to hospital
D. use of airborne isolation procedures whenever admitted to hospital
Sepsis is currently identified by:

a. an acute change in total SOFA score greater than 2 points secondary to the infection score
b. an acute change in total SOFA score greater than 2 points secondary to the infections core and mean blood pressure < 100 mmHg
c. an acute change in total SOFA score greater than 1 point associated with positive blood cultures for pathogenic bacteria
d. the presence of SIRS associated with signs of at least one organ failure
a. an acute change in total SOFA score greater than 2 points secondary to the infection score
Sign the right answer:

A. all the bacterial colonizations require antibiotics treatment
B. all the bacterial contaminations require antibiotics treatment
C. in some specific cases, bacterial colonizations require antibiotics treatment
D. bacterial colonizations and contamination are the same
C. in some specific cases, bacterial colonizations require antibiotics treatment
A "Hospital acquired infection" is:

A. an infection that affects patients in a hospital, that is not present or incubating at the time of admission
B. An infection that is diagnosed during hospitalization
C. An infection that occurs inpatient with comorbidities
D. An infection for which the patient is admitted to the hospital
A. an infection that affects patients in a hospital, that is not present or incubating at the time of admission
Which among the following is NOT useful to determine the presence of a virus in a tissue culture?

A. Morphological changes
B. Inclusions bodies
C. Syncytia
D. Hemolysis
C. Syncytia
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